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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)
QUESTION 11
When device mobility mode is enabled or disabled for a cluster, to which does the cluster setting apply?
A. all phones in the cluster that support device mobility
B. all phones in the cluster that subscribed to device mobility
C. mobile phones in the cluster that support device mobility
D. mobile phones in the cluster that are in default mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
To stream multicast MOH to the remote site across the WAN, what should the minimum value for the Max Hops be configured as?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The Max Hops field in the Music On Hold (MOH) Server Configuration window indicates the maximum number of routers that an audio source is allowed to cross. If max hops is set to zero, the audio source must remain in its own subnet. If max hops is set to one, the audio source can cross up to one router to the next subnet. Cisco recommends setting max hops to two.
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit.
How many route lists and route groups should be configured for AAR at a minimum?
A. a single route list with a local route group for each site
B. two route lists and two route groups for each site
C. a single route list and four route groups for each sitea
D. None. The AAR CSS can point directly to the route pattern.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
What must be configured on the HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow HQ users to dial the SAF learned directory number pattern 3XXX?
A. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ users through the phone CSS.
B. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
C. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone CSS.
D. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
E. The SAF directory number pattern 3XXX will be made available to all users automatically as soon as the SAF partition is selected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
By adopting the SAF network service, the call control discovery feature allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to advertise itself along with other key attributes.
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
All HQ phones are configured to use HQ_MRGL and all BR phones are configured to use BR_MRGL. 300-075 dumps For the HQ phones always to use the hardware conference bridge as a first choice, which configuration should be implemented?
A. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. Ensure that the instance ID for the hardware conference bridge is 0.
B. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. The hardware conference bridge must be configured first.
C. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Add both the HQ_MRG and HQ_MRG_2 to the HQ_MRGL and list the HQ_MRG first.
D. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Configure an additional HQ_MRGL_2. Add the HQ_MRG to HQ_MRGL. Add HQ_MRG_2 to HQ_MRGL_2. The HQ_MRGL should be assigned to the HQ phones. The HQ_MRGL_2 should be assigned to the HQ device pool.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure that the hardware bridge is utilized first with all its resources BEFORE the software bridge is used … you need to have two separate MRG’s and list the hardware MRG 1st in the MRGL …
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
Which pattern will be advertised try the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:.
B. 3XXX and the TnOID will be 0:44228822.
C. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 44228822.
D. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+44228822.
E. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Incorrect answer: BCD
the number of digits that want stripped from the hosted DN if the call fails over to the PSTN.
Value can enter 0 and 16. Here 0 is defined.
QUESTION 17
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What command is used to map internal extensions to the corresponding E.164 PSTN number when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode?
A. ephone-dn
B. dialplan-pattern
C. number
D. number-e.164
E. ephone-transnumber
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibit shows a SAF Forwarder configuration attached to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which minimum configuration for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SAF Forwarder is needed to establish a SAF neighbor relationship with this SAF Forwarder?
A. router eigrp SAF
i
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
voice service saf
profile trunkroute 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
B. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit- service-family
!
voice service saf
profile trunk-route 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
profile dn-block 1 alias-prefix 1972555
pattern 1 type extension 4xxx
!
profile callcontrol 1
dn-service
trunk-route 1
dn-block 1
dn-block 2
!
channel 1 vrouter SAF asystem 1
subscribe callcontrol wildcarded
publish callcontrol 1
!
C. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
!
D. None of above configurations contain sufficient information.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
only following configuration is enough
router eigrp SAF
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
exit-service-family
QUESTION 20
When multiple Cisco Extension Mobility profiles exist, which actions take place when a user tries to log in to Cisco Extension Mobility?
A. The login will fail because only a single Cisco Extension Mobility profile is allowed.
B. The user must select the desired profile.
C. The user must login to both profiles in the order they are presented.
D. The user may login to both profiles in any order.
E. Login will only be allowed to multiple profiles if the service parameter Allow Multiple Logins is enabled.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
When a call is placed from Phone 1 to Phone 2 and RSVP Agent 2 is not registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what happens?
A. The caller hears a busy tone.
B. The call proceeds as normal since the location setting for the BR site is unlimited.
C. An RSPV call is attempted but fails. The call will fall back to local QoS.
D. the call fails.
E. The phone displays a message that advises the user that the call has been queued.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which configuration command disables the secondary dial tone on the branch office ISR for users calling from the PSTN into the branch office during a WAN failure? 300-075 dumps
A. direct-inward-dial
B. voice translation-rule
C. incoming called-number
D. application
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What is an advantage of TEHO?
A. TEHO implemented with ISRs eliminates PSTN toll charges.
B. TEHO implemented with ISRs can reduce PSTN toll charges.
C. TEHO implemented with AAR reduces toll charges.
D. TEHO implemented with CFUR reroutes calls.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming the regions configuration to BR only permits G.729 codec, how many calls are allowed for the BR location?
A. Total of four calls; two incoming and two outgoing.
B. Total of two calls in either direction.
C. Total of four calls to the BR location. Outgoing calls are not impacted by the location configuration.
D. Total of four calls in either direction.
E. Two outgoing calls. Incoming calls are unlimited.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABCE
In performing location bandwidth calculations for purposes of call admission control, Cisco Unified Communications Manager assumes that each G.729 call stream consumes 24 kb/s amount of bandwidth.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
What should the destination IP address be configured as on the HQ and BR1 SIP trunks?
A. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.6.10. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.5.10.
B. The destination IP address is not configurable. Each cluster will learn about the remote trunk IP address through SAF learned routes.
C. The destination IP address will be learned automatically and configured on the SIP trunks after the Cisco Unified Communications Managers discover themselves.
D. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be the HQ SAF Forwarder IP address. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be the BR1 SAF Forwarder IP address.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ACD
The gatekeeper changes the IP address of this remote device dynamically to reflect the IP address of the remote device.
QUESTION 27
How do RSVP-enabled locations differ from Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations?
A. RSVP is configured in the ISR independent of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. RSVP enables AAR within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. RSVP is topology aware.
D. RSVP is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager independent of the ISR.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which two options are effective mechanisms to restrict the maximum number of voice calls on a WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a gatekeeper with an SIP trunk.
B. Configure a gatekeeper and a gatekeeper-controlled trunk in Cisco Unified Communications Manager with bandwidth control.
C. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
D. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 29
Which statement about RSVP is true?
A. MTP is typically used for RSVP agent configuration.
B. If the RSVP agent cannot reserve the required bandwidth on first effort, it enables low latency queuing and tries to connect the call again.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses the RSVP-configured bandwidth between sites as a method of determining if there is sufficient bandwidth for the call.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses an RSVP-enabled infrastructure and an RSVP-controlled agent to request a bandwidth reservation from the network in order to place a call.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
300-075 dumps How is the region assigned to a device such as an IP phone?
A. Regions are assigned directly in the device configuration page.
B. Regions can be assigned only through a device pool.
C. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device pool region configuration takes precedence.
D. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device region configuration takes precedence.
Correct Answer: B
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